If 1 mg of lorazepam produces the same anxiolytic response as 10 mg of diazepam, which statement is correct?

The statement that lorazepam is more potent than diazepam is correct because potency refers to the amount of drug needed to produce a specific effect. In this case, if 1 mg of lorazepam is capable of producing the same anxiolytic response as 10 mg of diazepam, it indicates that lorazepam requires a significantly lower dose to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. This demonstrates that lorazepam is more potent than diazepam, as a smaller quantity of drug results in similar levels of effectiveness.

Potency is an important consideration in pharmacology, as it helps indicate how much of a drug is needed for a therapeutic effect, which can inform dosing regimens and clinical decisions. The potency comparison does not imply that lorazepam is necessarily more effective (more efficacious) in all clinical situations, as efficacy relates to the maximum response achievable by a drug regardless of the dose needed. The other statements do not align with the information provided in the question regarding the specific doses required for similar effects.